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Old October 24th, 2005, 09:49 PM

 
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Default amps, speakers, impedance

heya, got a question for ya

Lets say I have a two-channel amp that puts out 300 watts into a 4 ohm load on each channel.

If I had an 8-ohm speaker going into each channel, each speaker would be receiving 150 watts?

If I instead wired both 8 ohm speakers in parallel (creating a 4-ohm load) and plugged both of them into just ONE of the amp channels, then I'd have 300 watts split between the two speakers (still 150 watts each)?

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Old October 25th, 2005, 07:34 PM
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Pretty much yes. The drop between max 8 ohm and 4 ohm is not quite 50% because a speaker is an inductive load, not a resistive load. But the logic you have used is going to be fairly close to the real output.
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Old October 25th, 2005, 07:58 PM

 
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Cool, thanks! I'm looking at a datasheet for a QSC amp and it's saying that it'll put 300 watts into an 8 ohm load, but only 500 into a 4 ohm load. Is all of the 100 watt difference from the expected 600 watts due to the inductive nature of the load?
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