amps, speakers, impedance

EPAC_Matt

Member
heya, got a question for ya

Lets say I have a two-channel amp that puts out 300 watts into a 4 ohm load on each channel.

If I had an 8-ohm speaker going into each channel, each speaker would be receiving 150 watts?

If I instead wired both 8 ohm speakers in parallel (creating a 4-ohm load) and plugged both of them into just ONE of the amp channels, then I'd have 300 watts split between the two speakers (still 150 watts each)?

Thanks
Matt
 

Mayhem

Senior Team Emeritus
Premium Member
Pretty much yes. The drop between max 8 ohm and 4 ohm is not quite 50% because a speaker is an inductive load, not a resistive load. But the logic you have used is going to be fairly close to the real output.
 

EPAC_Matt

Member
Cool, thanks! I'm looking at a datasheet for a QSC amp and it's saying that it'll put 300 watts into an 8 ohm load, but only 500 into a 4 ohm load. Is all of the 100 watt difference from the expected 600 watts due to the inductive nature of the load?
 

Users who are viewing this thread